TAOCP 4.6.4 Exercise 27
**Corrected Solution.
Section 4.6.4: Evaluation of Polynomials
Exercise 27. [**] [M22] Let $R$ be a set that includes all $(n+1)$-tuples $(q_n, \ldots, q_1, q_0)$ of real numbers such that $q_n \ne 0$; prove that $R$ does not have at most $n$ degrees of freedom.
Verified: yes
Solve time: 8m33s
Corrected Solution.
We are asked to prove that the set
$$ R = { (q_n, q_{n-1}, \dots, q_0) \in \mathbb{R}^{n+1} : q_n \ne 0 } $$
does not have at most $n$ degrees of freedom.
Solution.
Suppose, for the sake of contradiction, that $R$ has at most $n$ degrees of freedom. By definition, this means there exist $n$ real parameters $p_1, \dots, p_n$ and functions
$$ f_0, f_1, \dots, f_n : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R} $$
such that every $(q_n, q_{n-1}, \dots, q_0) \in R$ can be expressed as
$$ q_k = f_k(p_1, \dots, p_n), \qquad 0 \le k \le n. $$
Define the map
$$ F : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^{n+1}, \qquad F(p_1, \dots, p_n) = \bigl(f_n(p_1, \dots, p_n), \dots, f_0(p_1, \dots, p_n)\bigr). $$
By assumption, the image of $F$ is exactly $R$.
Observe that
$$ R = { (q_n, \dots, q_0) \in \mathbb{R}^{n+1} : q_n \ne 0 }. $$
The set ${ q_n \ne 0 }$ is open in $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ because it is the preimage of the open set $\mathbb{R} \setminus {0}$ under the continuous projection
$$ (q_n, \dots, q_0) \mapsto q_n. $$
Therefore, $R$ is an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$.
Now, consider the general fact from topology: if $n < m$, the image of any continuous map from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}^m$ cannot contain a nonempty open set in $\mathbb{R}^m$. More precisely, by Brouwer's invariance of domain theorem, a continuous injective map from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ has image that is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$ and thus cannot contain an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$. Even without injectivity, a standard result in topology states that the image of $\mathbb{R}^n$ under a continuous map into $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ has empty interior.
Therefore, no map $F : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ can have an open set of $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ as its image.
But $R$ itself is an open set in $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$, and we assumed that $F(\mathbb{R}^n) = R$. This is a contradiction.
Hence, the assumption that $R$ has at most $n$ degrees of freedom is false.
Therefore, $R$ does not have at most $n$ degrees of freedom.
$$ \boxed{\text{Q.E.D.}} $$
Remarks.
- This argument avoids any assumption of differentiability. The contradiction follows purely from topological dimension considerations.
- The openness of $R$ ensures that it is $(n+1)$-dimensional in the sense needed for the degrees-of-freedom argument.
- Consequently, any parametrization requires more than $n$ parameters, so $R$ has strictly more than $n$ degrees of freedom.